Free Online Practice Test RRB / RRC TC Exam

Directions (Q. 1 to 5): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer will be (d); i.e. “No error”.
4. Would you mind (a)/ help me (b)/ do the tasks. (c)/ No error (d)

Directions (Q. 1 to 5): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer will be (d); i.e. “No error”.

1. It is not safe (a)/ to drive (b)/ in Kolkata in the rush hour. (c)/ No error (d)

Directions (Q. 1 to 5): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer will be (d); i.e. “No error”.

2. I need cleaning (a)/ my shoes (b)/ with soap and water. (c)/ No error (d)

Directions (Q. 1 to 5): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer will be (d); i.e. “No error”.
3. I discussed with the architect (a)/ what colour (b)/ painting the walls with. (c)/ No error (d)

Directions (Q. 1 to 5): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer will be (d); i.e. “No error”.

5. I made him (a)/ to do (b)/ the project against his wishes. (c)/ No error (d)

Directions (Q. 6 to 10): In each of the following questions select the antonym of the given word.
6. Confuse
a) Nonplus          b) compound                  c) bewilder            d) clarify

Directions (Q. 6 to 10): In each of the following questions select the antonym of the given word.
7. Hinder
a) Impede              b) facilitate                  c) hamper                    d) facile

Directions (Q. 6 to 10): In each of the following questions select the antonym of the given word.
8. Ruthless
a) Sympathetic                 b) callous                  c) cruel              d) smooth

Directions (Q. 6 to 10): In each of the following questions select the antonym of the given word.
9. Prominent
a) apparent            b) famous             c) obscure             d) notable

Directions (Q. 6 to 10): In each of the following questions select the antonym of the given word.
10. Candid
a) frank b) secretive c) anxious d) inactive

11. Dearth
a) shortage b) abundance c) famine d) mean

Directions (Q. 11 to 15): In each of the following questions find out the correct synonym of the given word.
12. Inhale
a) praise b) breathe in c) outburst d) exhale

Directions (Q. 11 to 15): In each of the following questions find out the correct synonym of the given word.
13. Acquit
a) convict b) know c) exonerate d) present

Directions (Q. 11 to 15): In each of the following questions find out the correct synonym of the given word.
14. Notorious
a) infamous b) famous c) wild d) sleeply

Directions (Q. 11 to 15): In each of the following questions find out the correct synonym of the given word.
15. Morose
a) happy b) slow c) sad d) quick

➥ Directions (Q. 16 to 20): Fill in the blanks with the correct word.
16. His long illness has reduced him ……. a skeleton.
a) by b) into c) to d) from

Directions (Q. 16 to 20): Fill in the blanks with the correct word.
17. He will not succeed ……… he works hard.
a) if b) incase c) until d) unless

Directions (Q. 16 to 20): Fill in the blanks with the correct word.
18. The two of them shared the honours ……….. themselves.
a) in b) among c) between d) to

Directions (Q. 16 to 20): Fill in the blanks with the correct word.
19. As a good citizen, we should abide ……… the rules.
a) from b) to c) in d) by

Directions (Q. 16 to 20): Fill in the blanks with the correct word.
20. Rekha has not made ………. progress in her assignment.
a) many b) a lot of c) much d) a

21. 12.1/19.8
a) 7/9 b) 11/18 c) 13/17 d) 11/19

22. Find the least of a six digit number which is exactly divisible by 349.
a) 101063 b) 100163 c) 160063 d) None of these

23. Evaluation of 7 × 32 + 5 × 43 × 60 − 6 × 26 is …….
a) ( −1) b) 0 c) ( −321) d) 10

24. Find the square root of 535.9225
a) 23.45 b) 28.25 c) 23.15 d) 24.15

25. If CP Rs.2,516 and SP is Rs.2,272, then percentage loss is
a) 8.71% b) 7.43% c) 9.69% d) 10.28%

26. If the average temperature of first four days of week was 39° C and the average temperature of the week was 40 °C, then what was the average temperature of the last three days of the week?
a) 40.9 °C b) 39.9 °C c) 42.1 °C d) 41.3 ° C

27. The number ….. can divide 111, 111, 111, 111.

a) 9 and 11 b) 13 and 11 c) 3 and 9 d) 3 and 11

28. What will be the simple form of the ratio 3 hours : 1 day?
a) 1 : 6 b) 1 : 3 c) 1 : 8 d) 1 : 25

29. Find the two numbers whose mean proportion is 12 and the third number is 324.
a) 6 and 8 b) 4 and 36 c) 3 and 24 d) None of these

30. The maximum marks for an examination is 900. A student fails by 43 marks if he gets 33% of the maximum marks, What are pass marks?
a) 332 b) 360 c) 342 d) 375

31. In how many years the simple interest on a sum of Rs.725 will be Rs.87 at 4% per annum?
a) 1 year b) 5 years c) 3 years d) 4 years

32. What will be the difference between SI and CI on a sum of Rs.15,000 for two years at the same rate of interest of 12 1−2 % per annum?
a) Rs.234.375 b) Rs.230.550 c) Rs.250.129 d) Rs.324.357

33. The population of a town is 4.2 × 10 6. If the population increases by 75 per 1,000 per annum, then what will be population after two years?
a) 4853625 b) 5853615 c) 4633628 d) 5253495

34. The SP of a TV set is marked at Rs.17,600 including sales tax at the rate of 10%. Find the sales tax
a) Rs.1,600 b) Rs.1,250 c) Rs.1,550 d) Rs.1,660

35. 8 men can finish a certain amount of work in 40 days. If 2 more men join with them, the days needed to do the same amount of work is
a) 30 b) 32 c) 36 d) 25

36. A motorist travelled between two towns, which are 65 km apart, in 2 hours and 10 minutes. Find the speed in metres per minute.
a) 600 b) 500 c) 700 d) 200

37. If the length of the diagonal of a square is a + b then the area of the square is
a) (a + b)2 b) 1/2(a + b) 2 c) a2 + b2 d) 1/2(a2 + b2 )

38. AB and CD are lines, P is point on AB, A line PQ meets CD at R. If angle BPR = 30 degrees and angle CRQ = 150 degress, then
a) AB and CD are perpendicular b) AB and CD are parallel c) CD and PQ are perpendicular d) None of the above

39. How many metres of carpet 63 cm wide will be required to cover the floor of a room 14 m by 9 m?
a) 200 m b) 210 m c) 220 m d) 185 m

40. The radius of a circular pond is 14 m. A circular stage is made at the centre of the pond whose diameter is 14 m, what is the area where water is present?
a) 462 sq m b) 564 sq m c) 454 sq m d) 532 sq m

41. Simple interest of Rs.7,500, for 8 years at 6% per annum is:
a) 4,200 b) 3,600 c) 2,800 d) 3,400

42. 2x + 4 = 2 + 3x, the value of x is,
a) 2 b) 4 c) 1.5 d) 30

44. A number of two digits is 6 times the sum of its digits. When the sum of its digits is added to the number, the result is 63. What is the number?
a) 32 b) 42 c) 53 d) 54

45. The result of division a3 + b3 by a + b is
a) a3 − ab + b2 b) a2 + ab + b3 c) a2 − ab + b2 d) a − ab – b2

46. A rectangular water tank is 5 m high, 3 m long and 2 m wide. How many litres of water can it hold?
a) 30,000 b) 15,000 c) 25,000 d) 35,000

47. A rectangle measures 8 cm on length. Its diagonal measures 10 cm. What is the perimeter of the rectangle?
a) 36 cm b) 38 cm c) 28 cm d) 18 cm

48. A criket player scored the following runs in 11 one day matches- 65, 30, 7, 60, 65, 65, 30, 28, 30, 15, 30 The modal score is
a) 27 runs b) 30 runs c) 32 runs d) 31 runs

49. The cube root of ( −2,16,000) is
a) −60 b) 60 c) −70 d) 80

50. What is the volume in cubic cm of a pyramid whose area of the base is 25 sq cm and height 9 cm?
a) 105 b) 90 c) 60 d) 75

51. Who is considered the real founder of the Gupta Empire?
a) Chandragupta – II b) Chandragupta – I c) Samudragupta d) Srigupta

52. Shahjahan ascended the Mughal throne in
a) 1628 AD b) 1626 AD c) 1625 AD d) 1627 AD

53. Which is correct order?
a) Babar, Humayun, Jahangir, Akbar, Shahjahan, Aurangzeb
b) Babar, Humayun, Akbar, Jahangir, Shahjahan, Aurangzeb
c) Babar, Akbar, Humayun, Shahjahan, Jahangir, Aurangzeb
d) Babar, Humayun, Shahjahan, Akbar, Jahangir, Aurangzeb

54. Ibn Battuta visited India during the rule of
a) Alauddin Khilji b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq c) Sher Shah Suri d) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq

55. Who was the Nawab of Bengal during ‘Battle of Plassey’?
a) Siraj-ud-daulta b) Mir Jafar c) Mir Qasim d) None of these

56. FIFA World Cup, 2006 was played in
a) Germany b) France c) Spain d) UK

57. Munaf Patel plays which sport?
a) badminton b) football c) cricket d) table-tennis

58. The first Asian lady swimmer to have crossed the English Channel was
a) Bula Choudhary b) Arati Saha c) Nilima Ghosh d) None of these

59. Which country has never won the Cricket World Cup?
a) India b) Pakistan c) Sri Lanka d) England

60. Which cricket playing countries fight for the ‘ASHES’?
a) India and Pakistan b) Australia and South Africa c) Australia and England d) England and West Indies

61. Who was the first Law Minister of Independent India?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Vallabhbhai Patel c) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad d) Dr.B.R. Ambedkar

62. Who was the first speaker of the Lok Sabha?
a) BR Ambedkar b) G.V. Mavlankar c) N. Sanjeeva Reddy d) Dr. S.P. Mukherjee

63. How many states (except Delhi) are there in India? a) 28 b) 29 c) 25 d) 30

64. Which country won the first World Cup Cricket? a) Australia b) India c) England d) West Indies

65. Who was the woman President of the United Nations General Assembly?
a) Sarojini Naidu b) Vijayawada Lakshmi Pandit c) Golda Mayer d) Margaret Thatcher

66. Who was the first man to land on moon?
a) Neil Armstrong b) Edwin c) Gagarin d) John collins

67. One inch is equal to how many centimetres? a) 2.54 b) 2.84 c) 2.94 d) 3.0

68. Bronze is an alloy of copper and ……..
a) nickel b) tin c) zinc d) aluminium

69. Minus 40 degree centigrade is equal to …… degree fahrenheit.
a) 104 b) 122 c) −40 d) none of these

70. What is the value of XC (Roman number)?
a) 100 b) 40 c) 110 d) 90

71. The person of which of the following blood groups can accept the blood of any group? a) AB b) O c) A d) B

72. Mountain K2 is Known as
a) Everest b) Nanga parbat c) Godwin d) Nanda Devi

73. Lucknow is situated on the banks of river
a) Yamuna b) Tapti c) Shipra d) Gomti

74. Who won the Golden Ball Award during FIFA World Cup 2006?
a) Ronaldo b) Klose c) Ronaldinho d) Zidane

75. Who is the Chief Minister of Orissa?
a) K.C. Singhdeo b) Nandini Satyaji c) Navin patnaik d) Rameshwar Thakur

76. Who is the Finance Minister of India?
a) Manmohan Singh b) P. Chidambaram c) Muarsoli Maran d) Pranab Mukherjee

77. Where is the headquarters of South-East Central Railway located?
a) Bilaspur b) Jabalpur c) Bhopal d) Raipur

78. Which of the following places in India receives maximum precipitation?
a) Itanagar b) Mawsynram c) Cherrapunjee d) Tezpur

79. Who was elected the President of the Cricket Association of Bengal (CAB) in July 2006? a) Prasen Mukherjee b) Ajit Panja c) Jagmohan Dalmilya d) Saurav Ganguly

80. In a cetrain code language CLOUD is wirtten as FORXG. How will the word RAINY be wirtten in that code language?
a) TILOZ b) UDLQB c) MDJOX d) STLNR

81. In certain code language FLAUNT is written as DNYWLV. How will WAGONG be written in that code language?
a) UYEMLQ b) YCIQPU c) CYEPQU d) UCEQLI

82. What will be the next term of the given series? 1, 4, 10, 19, 31, 46, ?
a) 64 b) 61 c) 58 d) 55

83. What will be the next term of the given series? 17, 23, 19, 25, 21, 27, ?
a) 22 b) 23 c) 24 d) 29

84. Find the odd man out
a) ATNIR b) CUTKR c) ADRO d) TMAR

85. Find the odd man out
a) RTCROA b) JLBNIRA c) ATMOOT d) ANANBA

86. Curd : Milk : : Oil : ? a) Paper b) Coconut c) Falme d) Lamp

87. Ambition : Desire :: Ability : ?
a) Capacity b) personality c) Hobby d) Ego

88. Find the odd man out
a) 729 b) 125 c) 216 d) 625

89. In which of the following States Nahargarh Wild life Sancturary is located?
a) Uttar pradesh b) Rajasthan c) Madhya pradesh d) Orrisa

90. Find the odd man out
. a) Rhine b) Nile c) Amazon d) Spinach

93. Seema and Reena are Sam’s wives. Rita is Reena’s step daughter. How is Seema related to Rita?
a) Daughter b) Sister c) Mother d) Aunt

94. Rita introduced Ram to her husband and said ‘Ram’s brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather’. How is Rita related to Ram?
a) Mother b) Sister c) Niece d) Aunt

95. A started from his house, walked 15 m in front, then 15 m to right and then turning to his left he walked 10, 20 and 25 m. How far is A from his house now?
a) 85 m b) 30 m c) 15 m d) 5 m

96. If South – East becomes East, North – West becomes West, South – West becomes South and so on, what will North become?
a) North – West b) South – West c) North – East d) South – East

Directions (Q. 97 and 98): Each of the following problems contains four problem figures I, II, III and IV. The correct next figure in series must be selected from the answer figures (a), (b), (c), (d).

Directions (Q. 97 and 98): Each of the following problems contains four problem figures I, II, III and IV. The correct next figure in series must be selected from the answer figures (a), (b), (c), (d).

Directions (Q. 99 and 100): Which of the given Venn diagrams out of (a), (b), (c) and (d) correctly illustrates the relationship among the following classes?

Directions (Q. 99 and 100): Which of the given Venn diagrams out of (a), (b), (c) and (d) correctly illustrates the relationship among the following classes?