10 Criticism of the Constituent Assembly - bit bank MCQs

10 Criticism of the Constituent Assembly - bit bank MCQs

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Constituent Assembly of India Bit Bank (Questions 1-71)

Q1: Under which plan was the Constituent Assembly of India established?

A) Mountbatten Plan B) Cripps Mission C) Cabinet Mission Plan D) August Offer

💡 C) Cabinet Mission Plan

Q2: How many members were there in the Constituent Assembly before partition?

A) 299 B) 389 C) 296 D) 395

💡 B) 389

Q3: Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?

A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) K.M. Munshi C) B.R. Ambedkar D) Rajendra Prasad

💡 C) B.R. Ambedkar

Q4: What was the primary criticism regarding the election of the Constituent Assembly?

A) No elections were held B) Indirect elections with a limited franchise C) Nominated by the British Crown D) Elected only by princely states

💡 B) Indirect elections with a limited franchise

Q5: What percentage of adults could vote in the 1946 elections for the provincial assemblies?

A) 100% B) Around 50% C) About 28% D) Less than 10%

💡 C) About 28%

Q6: Who among the following was a vocal critic of the Constituent Assembly’s elitism?

A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Jayaprakash Narayan C) Sardar Patel D) Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar

💡 B) Jayaprakash Narayan

Q7: Which political party dominated the Constituent Assembly?

A) Hindu Mahasabha B) Indian National Congress C) Muslim League D) Communist Party of India

💡 B) Indian National Congress

Q8: How many sessions did the Constituent Assembly hold during its functioning?

A) 15 B) 11 C) 8 D) 22

💡 B) 11

Q9: Who among the following was a prominent member of the Constituent Assembly representing Scheduled Tribes?

A) Jaipal Singh B) Hansa Mehta C) K.M. Munshi D) Shyama Prasad Mookerjee

💡 A) Jaipal Singh

Q10: Which article in the Indian Constitution provides for universal adult franchise?

A) Article 14 B) Article 326 C) Article 21 D) Article 370

💡 B) Article 326

Q11: Which group’s boycott led to a reduction in Muslim representation in the Assembly?

A) Hindu Mahasabha B) Muslim League C) Communist Party D) Scheduled Castes Federation

💡 B) Muslim League

Q12: Which provision was criticized for favoring strong centralization, aligning with Congress ideology?

A) Article 370 B) Articles 352–360 C) Article 32 D) Article 21

💡 B) Articles 352–360

Q13: Who among the following was a woman member of the Constituent Assembly?

A) Begum Rokeya B) Hansa Mehta C) Sarojini Naidu D) Sucheta Kripalani

💡 B) Hansa Mehta

Q14: Which part of the Constitution addresses minority rights like cultural and educational rights?

A) Part II B) Part III C) Part IV D) Part I

💡 B) Part III

Q15: Which provision in the draft Constitution provided protection to minority educational institutions?

A) Article 29 B) Article 370 C) Article 21 D) Article 50

💡 A) Article 29

Q16: The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in which part of the Constitution?

A) Part III B) Part IV C) Part V D) Part II

💡 B) Part IV

Q17: Which leader from the Scheduled Castes Federation played a significant role in the Constituent Assembly?

A) Jaipal Singh B) B.R. Ambedkar C) Shyama Prasad Mookerjee D) Rajendra Prasad

💡 B) B.R. Ambedkar

Q18: Which article initially protected property rights before being repealed?

A) Article 14 B) Article 31 C) Article 21 D) Article 370

💡 B) Article 31

Q19: Who among the following continued to represent Muslim interests in the Assembly despite the Muslim League’s boycott?

A) Begum Aizaz Rasul B) Muhammad Ali Jinnah C) Liaquat Ali Khan D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

💡 A) Begum Aizaz Rasul

Q20: The final Constitution adopted in 1949 contained how many articles and schedules?

A) 395 articles and 8 schedules B) 299 articles and 12 schedules C) 448 articles and 12 schedules D) 395 articles and 12 schedules

💡 A) 395 articles and 8 schedules

Q21: Who among the following women leaders was part of the Constituent Assembly and advocated for gender-neutral language in the Constitution?

A) Sarojini Naidu B) Hansa Mehta C) Annie Besant D) Aruna Asaf Ali

💡 B) Hansa Mehta

Q22: Which Article of the Indian Constitution ensures maternity relief for women?

A) Article 15 B) Article 39 C) Article 42 D) Article 21

💡 C) Article 42

Q23: What was a major criticism regarding the representation of princely states in the Constituent Assembly?

A) Representatives were appointed by the British Crown B) Representatives were nominated by rulers instead of being elected C) There was no representation of princely states D) Princely states refused to participate

💡 B) Representatives were nominated by rulers instead of being elected

Q24: Who played a crucial role in integrating over 560 princely states into the Indian Union by 1949?

A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel D) Mahatma Gandhi

💡 C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Q25: What was one of the consequences of time constraints faced by the Constituent Assembly?

A) The Constitution was never circulated for public feedback B) Limited grassroots public engagement C) No discussions on fundamental rights D) Delay in the framing of Directive Principles

💡 B) Limited grassroots public engagement

Q26: Approximately how many plenary sessions did the Constituent Assembly hold during the framing of the Constitution?

A) 100 B) 120 C) 165 D) 200

💡 C) 165

Q27: Which provision in the Constitution reflects an effort to incorporate indigenous governance systems?

A) Article 40 (Village Panchayats) B) Article 368 (Amendment Procedure) C) Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability) D) Article 14 (Equality Before Law)

💡 A) Article 40 (Village Panchayats)

Q28: Which of the following foreign constitutions influenced the Directive Principles of State Policy in India?

A) U.S. Constitution B) British Constitution C) Irish Constitution D) French Constitution

💡 C) Irish Constitution

Q29: Critics from which group claimed the Indian Constitution lacked a true “Bharatiya” ethos?

A) Indian National Congress B) Hindu Mahasabha C) Communist Party of India D) Muslim League

💡 B) Hindu Mahasabha

Q30: Despite foreign influences, which element of the Constitution emphasizes India's unique diversity and culture?

A) Article 370 B) The Preamble C) Article 352 D) Ninth Schedule

💡 B) The Preamble

Q31: What was a major criticism of the centralized federal structure of the Indian Constitution?

A) It gave too much power to states B) It undermined provincial autonomy C) It allowed direct rule by the judiciary D) It restricted the role of the President

💡 B) It undermined provincial autonomy

Q32: Which Article allows for President's Rule in states, a point of criticism regarding central overreach?

A) Article 352 B) Article 356 C) Article 360 D) Article 370

💡 B) Article 356

Q33: The linguistic reorganization of states in 1956 demonstrated:

A) Weakness of the federal system B) Flexibility of the federal framework C) Failure of the Constitution D) End of federalism

💡 B) Flexibility of the federal framework

Q34: What did socialist and communist critics argue about the socio-economic aspects of the Constitution?

A) It focused only on foreign policies B) It was too radical C) It prioritized political democracy over socio-economic transformation D) It ignored political democracy

💡 C) It prioritized political democracy over socio-economic transformation

Q35: Article 31, before its amendment, was criticized for:

A) Promoting communalism B) Protecting landlord interests C) Weakening judiciary powers D) Ignoring property rights

💡 B) Protecting landlord interests

Q36: Which part of the Constitution sets ambitious socio-economic goals?

A) Preamble B) Part III C) Part IV (Directive Principles) D) Part V

💡 C) Part IV (Directive Principles)

Q37: The Assembly balanced ideologies of leaders like:

A) Nehru’s socialism, Ambedkar’s social justice, Patel’s pragmatism B) Gandhi’s communism, Patel’s socialism, Nehru’s liberalism C) Ambedkar’s monarchy, Nehru’s communism, Patel’s democracy D) None of the above

💡 A) Nehru’s socialism, Ambedkar’s social justice, Patel’s pragmatism

Q38: How was the democratic mandate of the Constituent Assembly justified?

A) Members were nominated by British rulers B) Members were chosen by provincial legislatures based on 1946 elections C) Members were directly elected by the public D) Members were selected by political parties

💡 B) Members were chosen by provincial legislatures based on 1946 elections

Q39: Which article provides for universal adult franchise?

A) Article 14 B) Article 19 C) Article 326 D) Article 370

💡 C) Article 326

Q40: How did non-Congress members influence the Assembly?

A) They were excluded from major discussions B) They held influential roles and contributed diverse perspectives C) They boycotted the Assembly entirely D) They only focused on foreign policy

💡 B) They held influential roles and contributed diverse perspectives

Q41: What provisions addressed minority concerns in the Constitution?

A) Articles 370–371 B) Articles 29–30 and secularism in the Preamble C) Articles 15–16 only D) None of the above

💡 B) Articles 29–30 and secularism in the Preamble

Q42: How did the Assembly address elite bias?

A) By excluding marginalized groups B) By including representatives from Scheduled Castes, Tribes, and women C) By focusing only on urban elites D) By ignoring social justice

💡 B) By including representatives from Scheduled Castes, Tribes, and women

Q43: Which article provides for reservations in public employment?

A) Article 21 B) Article 335 C) Article 370 D) Article 280

💡 B) Article 335

Q44: How did women members influence the Constitution?

A) They were passive participants B) They shaped key provisions like gender equality and social justice C) They focused only on economic matters D) They had no influence

💡 B) They shaped key provisions like gender equality and social justice

Q45: Integration of princely states was led by:

A) B.R. Ambedkar B) Sardar Patel C) Jawaharlal Nehru D) Maulana Azad

💡 B) Sardar Patel

Q46: What demonstrated public consultation in the Constitution-making process?

A) No circulation of draft B) Thousands of public suggestions and 165 days of debate C) Quick passing without discussion D) Ignoring amendments

💡 B) Thousands of public suggestions and 165 days of debate

Q47: How did the Constitution balance foreign influences?

A) By copying foreign models without changes B) By rejecting all foreign influences C) By adapting foreign elements to Indian needs D) By ignoring Indian traditions

💡 C) By adapting foreign elements to Indian needs

Q48: Article 40 promotes:

A) Presidential governance B) Secularism C) Village panchayats D) Emergency provisions

💡 C) Village panchayats

Q49: The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution concerns:

A) Fundamental Duties B) Union, State, and Concurrent Lists C) Directive Principles D) Emergency Provisions

💡 B) Union, State, and Concurrent Lists

Q50: The Finance Commission is provided under:

A) Article 280 B) Article 356 C) Article 368 D) Article 370

💡 A) Article 280

Q51: Which article provides for amending the Constitution?

A) Article 280 B) Article 368 C) Article 352 D) Article 14

💡 B) Article 368

Q52: The concept of "quasi-federalism" in the Indian Constitution primarily means:

A) Equal power between Centre and States B) Strong Centre with State autonomy C) Complete State autonomy D) Power only to Union Territories

💡 B) Strong Centre with State autonomy

Q53: The criticism regarding protection of landlord interests was mainly directed at which Article?

A) Article 14 B) Article 31 C) Article 44 D) Article 39

💡 B) Article 31

Q54: The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution deals with:

A) Fundamental Duties B) Distribution of powers between Centre and States C) Emergency Provisions D) Directive Principles

💡 B) Distribution of powers between Centre and States

Q55: The linguistic reorganization of states in 1956 is an example of:

A) Centralization of power B) Assertion of state autonomy within federal flexibility C) Limiting federal rights D) Undemocratic practices

💡 B) Assertion of state autonomy within federal flexibility

Q56: Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in:

A) Part II B) Part III C) Part IV D) Part V

💡 C) Part IV

Q57: The Assembly’s public consultation process involved how many amendments?

A) 165 B) 2,473 C) 1,500 D) 3,000

💡 B) 2,473

Q58: Which leader played a pivotal role in the integration of princely states?

A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) B.R. Ambedkar C) Sardar Patel D) Rajendra Prasad

💡 C) Sardar Patel

Q59: The Constitution was adopted on:

A) August 15, 1947 B) January 26, 1950 C) November 26, 1949 D) January 30, 1948

💡 C) November 26, 1949

Q60: Universal adult franchise is provided under which Article?

A) Article 324 B) Article 326 C) Article 368 D) Article 280

💡 B) Article 326

Q61: Article 29 and 30 of the Constitution focus on:

A) Economic rights B) Cultural and educational rights of minorities C) Directive Principles D) Emergency Provisions

💡 B) Cultural and educational rights of minorities

Q62: Which part of the Constitution reflects socialist ideals like equitable wealth distribution?

A) Preamble B) Part IV (Directive Principles) C) Part III (Fundamental Rights) D) Part IX (Panchayati Raj)

💡 B) Part IV (Directive Principles)

Q63: Hansa Mehta is known for her contribution to:

A) Land reforms B) Gender equality provisions C) Integration of states D) Secularism

💡 B) Gender equality provisions

Q64: Which Article emphasizes non-discrimination on grounds of sex, race, religion, etc.?

A) Article 14 B) Article 15 C) Article 19 D) Article 21

💡 B) Article 15

Q65: The abolition of property rights as a fundamental right was achieved through an amendment in:

A) 1956 B) 1962 C) 1978 D) 1985

💡 C) 1978

Q66: Article 280 relates to:

A) Election Commission B) Union Public Service Commission C) Finance Commission D) Comptroller and Auditor General

💡 C) Finance Commission

Q67: The phrase “unity in diversity” in the context of the Constitution mainly reflects:

A) Directive Principles B) Preamble C) Federal structure D) All of the above

💡 D) All of the above

Q68: What was one of the reasons for adopting a strong Centre, as per the Assembly debates?

A) Promote international trade B) Counter post-partition fragmentation C) Abolish caste system D) Promote foreign relations

💡 B) Counter post-partition fragmentation

Q69: Which Article promotes the establishment of village panchayats?

A) Article 40 B) Article 32 C) Article 50 D) Article 48

💡 A) Article 40

Q70: The draft Constitution was circulated for public feedback in:

A) 1946 B) 1947 C) 1948 D) 1950

💡 C) 1948

Q71: Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for President's Rule, criticized for enabling Central overreach?

A) Article 352 B) Article 356 C) Article 360 D) Article 368

💡 B) Article 356

9 Making of constitution Experts Committee of the Congress bit bank MCQs

9 Making of constitution Experts Committee of the Congress bit bank MCQs

Home Page of Political Science Bit Bank

Experts Committee and Cabinet Mission Plan Bit Bank (Questions 1-75)

Q1: The Experts Committee of the Congress was formed in which year to deliberate on the Cabinet Mission Plan?

A) 1942 B) 1946 C) 1947 D) 1950

💡 B) 1946

Q2: Who was the chairman of the Experts Committee of the Congress?

A) Rajendra Prasad B) Jawaharlal Nehru C) Sardar Patel D) Maulana Azad

💡 B) Jawaharlal Nehru

Q3: Which key Muslim leader was part of the Experts Committee and emphasized secularism and unity?

A) Asaf Ali B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad C) Liaquat Ali Khan D) Rafi Ahmed Kidwai

💡 B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

Q4: The Cabinet Mission Plan proposed a Constituent Assembly with how many total members?

A) 296 B) 389 C) 545 D) 250

💡 B) 389

Q5: What was a major objective of the Experts Committee of the Congress?

A) To draft the Constitution B) To finalize partition plans C) To outline Congress’s vision for the Constitution D) To prepare the Nehru Report

💡 C) To outline Congress’s vision for the Constitution

Q6: Which of the following was NOT a member of the Experts Committee of the Congress?

A) S. Radhakrishnan B) C. Rajagopalachari C) B.R. Ambedkar D) Pattabhi Sitaramayya

💡 C) B.R. Ambedkar

Q7: The Cabinet Mission Plan was announced in which month of 1946?

A) January B) March C) May D) July

💡 C) May

Q8: Article of sovereignty, federalism, and minority protection were to be part of Congress’s vision prepared by:

A) Constituent Assembly Drafting Committee B) Simon Commission C) Experts Committee of the Congress D) Cripps Mission

💡 C) Experts Committee of the Congress

Q9: The Cabinet Mission was sent by which colonial power to negotiate India's constitutional framework?

A) France B) Britain C) Portugal D) Netherlands

💡 B) Britain

Q10: Which Congress leader from the United Provinces, addressing regional concerns, was a part of the Experts Committee?

A) G.B. Pant B) Rajendra Prasad C) C. Rajagopalachari D) Jawaharlal Nehru

💡 A) G.B. Pant

Q11: The Experts Committee was formed under the direction of which organizational body of the Congress?

A) Congress Parliamentary Board B) Congress Working Committee C) Congress Planning Committee D) All India Congress Committee

💡 B) Congress Working Committee

Q12: The Cabinet Mission Plan suggested a federal structure with how many tiers?

A) Two B) Three C) Four D) One

💡 B) Three

Q13: Who among the following contributed philosophical depth to the Experts Committee?

A) S. Radhakrishnan B) Vallabhbhai Patel C) Pattabhi Sitaramayya D) Asaf Ali

💡 A) S. Radhakrishnan

Q14: The Experts Committee’s recommendations particularly influenced which important resolution in the Constituent Assembly?

A) Resolution on Partition B) Objectives Resolution C) Preamble Resolution D) National Language Resolution

💡 B) Objectives Resolution

Q15: Which leader in the Experts Committee focused especially on national integration and princely states?

A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Rajendra Prasad C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel D) G.B. Pant

💡 C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Q16: Which of the following was NOT part of the mandate of the Experts Committee?

A) To study the Cabinet Mission Plan B) To decide the boundaries of India and Pakistan C) To prepare Congress’s constitutional vision D) To strategize for Constituent Assembly functioning

💡 B) To decide the boundaries of India and Pakistan

Q17: The Congress officially accepted the Cabinet Mission Plan on which date?

A) June 25, 1946 B) July 4, 1946 C) August 15, 1946 D) November 26, 1946

💡 A) June 25, 1946

Q18: Asaf Ali, a member of the Experts Committee, was known for advocating:

A) Princely state rights B) Socialist economy C) Minority rights D) Linguistic reorganization

💡 C) Minority rights

Q19: The Cabinet Mission consisted of how many British members?

A) Two B) Three C) Four D) Five

💡 B) Three

Q20: C. Rajagopalachari brought to the Experts Committee his experience from:

A) The August Offer B) The Nehru Report debates C) The Gandhi-Irwin Pact D) The Cripps Mission

💡 B) The Nehru Report debates

Q21: The Constituent Assembly envisaged by the Cabinet Mission was to consist of representatives from:

A) Only British Indian provinces B) Only princely states C) British Indian provinces and princely states D) Indian National Congress only

💡 C) British Indian provinces and princely states

Q22: The primary goal of the Congress through the Experts Committee was to:

A) Accept partition B) Prepare for self-rule with a clear constitutional framework C) Delay independence D) Expand British rule

💡 B) Prepare for self-rule with a clear constitutional framework

Q23: Pattabhi Sitaramayya was recognized in the Experts Committee for his:

A) Diplomatic skills B) Organizational expertise C) Judicial insights D) Economic planning

💡 B) Organizational expertise

Q24: The Cabinet Mission Plan’s "grouping clause" led to tensions between:

A) Congress and princely states B) Congress and the Muslim League C) Congress and British government D) Muslim League and princely states

💡 B) Congress and the Muslim League

Q25: The Experts Committee was formed primarily to address ambiguities in:

A) Simon Commission proposals B) Cripps Mission plan C) Cabinet Mission Plan D) Wavell Plan

💡 C) Cabinet Mission Plan

Q26: One of the critical areas of focus for the Experts Committee was:

A) Drawing provincial boundaries B) Drafting India's first Five-Year Plan C) Addressing communal and regional concerns D) Formulating foreign trade policies

💡 C) Addressing communal and regional concerns

Q27: Which member of the Cabinet Mission was also a Labour politician?

A) Stafford Cripps B) A.V. Alexander C) Pethick-Lawrence D) Clement Attlee

💡 C) Pethick-Lawrence

Q28: The Experts Committee consulted experts and leaders beyond its formal members to ensure:

A) Secret negotiations B) International approval C) Diverse inputs D) Speedy independence

💡 C) Diverse inputs

Q29: The Experts Committee influenced the Constituent Assembly, especially in its:

A) Procedural laws B) Fundamental approach and objectives C) Judicial appointments D) Language policy

💡 B) Fundamental approach and objectives

Q30: Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, as part of the Experts Committee, primarily emphasized:

A) Economic decentralization B) Religious nationalism C) Secularism and unity D) Judicial reforms

💡 C) Secularism and unity

Q31: The role of the Experts Committee can best be described as:

A) Constitution ratification B) Military planning for independence C) Preparatory and advisory for constitutional framework D) Designing India’s electoral system

💡 C) Preparatory and advisory for constitutional framework

Q32: The Experts Committee was formed in which month of 1946?

A) June B) July C) August D) September

💡 B) July

Q33: The Muslim League's initial acceptance and later rejection of the Cabinet Mission Plan made the work of the Experts Committee:

A) Irrelevant B) Less urgent C) More crucial D) Completed

💡 C) More crucial

Q34: G.B. Pant, as a member of the Experts Committee, was primarily associated with which region?

A) Bengal B) United Provinces C) Punjab D) Madras Presidency

💡 B) United Provinces

Q35: The Cabinet Mission rejected which of the following demands?

A) Indian independence B) Full dominion status C) Separate sovereign Pakistan D) Federal constitution

💡 C) Separate sovereign Pakistan

Q36: What was the total number of members in the Constituent Assembly as proposed by the Cabinet Mission Plan?

A) 299 B) 389 C) 400 D) 296

💡 B) 389

Q37: The contentious "Grouping Clause" in the Cabinet Mission Plan was seen by the Muslim League as a step towards:

A) Dominion status B) Separate electorates C) Pakistan D) Minority safeguards

💡 C) Pakistan

Q38: Under the Cabinet Mission Plan, the Union’s powers were limited to:

A) Defense, foreign affairs, and communications B) Law and order only C) Taxation and judiciary D) Agriculture and education

💡 A) Defense, foreign affairs, and communications

Q39: The Experts Committee recommended conditional acceptance of the Cabinet Mission Plan, stressing that:

A) The Assembly should follow British guidelines B) Provinces must accept mandatory grouping C) The Constituent Assembly must have sovereign authority D) India should remain a monarchy

💡 C) The Constituent Assembly must have sovereign authority

Q40: Who articulated the Congress's stance on the Assembly’s sovereignty in the July 10, 1946 press conference?

A) Sardar Patel B) Jawaharlal Nehru C) Rajendra Prasad D) Maulana Azad

💡 B) Jawaharlal Nehru

Q41: The Objectives Resolution was moved in the Constituent Assembly by:

A) B.R. Ambedkar B) Jawaharlal Nehru C) Sardar Patel D) Rajendra Prasad

💡 B) Jawaharlal Nehru

Q42: The Objectives Resolution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on:

A) August 15, 1947 B) January 22, 1947 C) December 13, 1946 D) November 26, 1949

💡 B) January 22, 1947

Q43: Which of the following was not a principle outlined in the Objectives Resolution?

A) Sovereign, democratic republic B) Fundamental rights for all citizens C) Mandatory separate electorates D) Protection of minority rights

💡 C) Mandatory separate electorates

Q44: To organize the Assembly's work, the Experts Committee recommended:

A) Military deployment B) Formation of specialized committees C) Boycott of princely states D) Dissolution of provincial legislatures

💡 B) Formation of specialized committees

Q45: The inclusion of non-Congress members like B.R. Ambedkar in the Assembly was to:

A) Increase British support B) Ensure broad representation and legitimacy C) Strengthen communal divisions D) Delay independence

💡 B) Ensure broad representation and legitimacy

Q46: How many seats did the Congress initially secure in the Constituent Assembly?

A) 296 B) 208 C) 389 D) 190

💡 B) 208

Q47: The Experts Committee opposed the Muslim League’s demand for:

A) Separate electorates B) Separate Constituent Assembly C) Minority safeguards D) Princely state autonomy

💡 B) Separate Constituent Assembly

Q48: Articles 29–30 of the Constitution reflect the committee's proposals for:

A) Princely state integration B) Cultural and educational rights for minorities C) Emergency powers D) Union powers

💡 B) Cultural and educational rights for minorities

Q49: Which leader’s inputs were crucial for integrating princely states?

A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) B.R. Ambedkar C) Sardar Patel D) Rajendra Prasad

💡 C) Sardar Patel

Q50: The committee’s vision of a federal India influenced provisions such as:

A) Article 370 and Schedules V–VI B) Directive Principles only C) Separate electorates D) Basic Structure Doctrine

💡 A) Article 370 and Schedules V–VI

Q51: The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution was influenced by the committee’s advocacy for:

A) Single citizenship B) Federal structure with a strong Centre C) Supreme Court jurisdiction D) Universal adult suffrage

💡 B) Federal structure with a strong Centre

Q52: The committee drew inspiration for fundamental rights from:

A) Simon Commission B) Nehru Report (1928) and Karachi Resolution (1931) C) Round Table Conferences D) British Parliament Acts

💡 B) Nehru Report (1928) and Karachi Resolution (1931)

Q53: Which parts of the Constitution were shaped by the committee's proposals on rights and governance?

A) Parts I and II B) Parts III and IV C) Parts V and VI D) Parts XI and XII

💡 B) Parts III and IV

Q54: The emergency powers under Articles 352–360 were designed to:

A) Protect minority languages B) Strengthen provincial autonomy C) Ensure national unity during crises D) Reduce presidential powers

💡 C) Ensure national unity during crises

Q55: Leaders like Maulana Azad and Asaf Ali helped the committee promote:

A) Theocracy B) Communal polarization C) Secular credentials of the Congress D) Division of states on religious lines

💡 C) Secular credentials of the Congress

Q56: Who chaired the Experts Committee of the Congress formed in July 1946?

A) B.R. Ambedkar B) Jawaharlal Nehru C) Sardar Patel D) Maulana Azad

💡 B) Jawaharlal Nehru

Q57: What was a major influence of the Experts Committee on the Constitution’s Preamble?

A) Separation of Powers B) Directive Principles C) Objectives Resolution emphasizing unity, democracy, and social justice D) Emergency Provisions

💡 C) Objectives Resolution emphasizing unity, democracy, and social justice

Q58: The Experts Committee conditionally accepted which important 1946 proposal?

A) Simon Commission Recommendations B) Cripps Mission Proposals C) Cabinet Mission Plan D) Mountbatten Plan

💡 C) Cabinet Mission Plan

Q59: Which clause of the Cabinet Mission Plan did the Experts Committee oppose as mandatory?

A) Union Powers B) Grouping Clause C) Sovereignty Clause D) Separate Electorates

💡 B) Grouping Clause

Q60: The Experts Committee’s emphasis on fundamental rights led to which part of the Constitution?

A) Part II B) Part III C) Part IV D) Part V

💡 B) Part III

Q61: Which articles in the Constitution reflect the committee’s advocacy for minority protections?

A) Articles 14–18 B) Articles 29–30 C) Articles 32–35 D) Articles 370–371

💡 B) Articles 29–30

Q62: Who among the following leaders helped reinforce the Congress’s secular stance in the committee?

A) Vallabhbhai Patel B) Maulana Azad C) Rajendra Prasad D) Syama Prasad Mookerjee

💡 B) Maulana Azad

Q63: The Experts Committee faced criticism for lacking representation from which group?

A) Provincial leaders B) Scheduled Castes and Muslim League C) British Parliamentarians D) Women activists

💡 B) Scheduled Castes and Muslim League

Q64: The committee’s federal vision influenced which key part of the Constitution?

A) Schedule VIII B) Seventh Schedule C) Tenth Schedule D) Third Schedule

💡 B) Seventh Schedule

Q65: Sardar Patel’s role in the committee particularly focused on:

A) Drafting Fundamental Rights B) Economic Planning C) Integration of princely states D) Foreign Policy Formulation

💡 C) Integration of princely states

Q66: The Experts Committee proposed cultural rights over political reservations for minorities, leading to:

A) Separate electorates B) Abolition of untouchability C) Articles 29–30 D) Right to constitutional remedies

💡 C) Articles 29–30

Q67: The Objectives Resolution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on:

A) August 15, 1947 B) December 13, 1946 C) January 22, 1947 D) November 26, 1949

💡 C) January 22, 1947

Q68: The Experts Committee faced time constraints because it was formed in:

A) June 1945 B) July 1946 C) January 1947 D) August 1947

💡 B) July 1946

Q69: Which aspect of the Experts Committee's recommendations strengthened India’s quasi-federal structure?

A) Emergency Provisions B) Seventh Schedule C) Directive Principles of State Policy D) Preamble

💡 B) Seventh Schedule

Q70: Which international constitutions inspired the Experts Committee’s work?

A) American and Irish Constitutions B) French and Russian Constitutions C) Japanese and South African Constitutions D) Swiss and Chinese Constitutions

💡 A) American and Irish Constitutions

Q71: The committee’s rejection of separate electorates was aimed at:

A) Protecting princely states B) Promoting national unity and secularism C) Empowering regional governments D) Enhancing foreign policy

💡 B) Promoting national unity and secularism

Q72: One of the challenges faced by the committee was balancing Nehru’s idealism with Patel’s:

A) Conservatism B) Revolutionary approach C) Pragmatism D) Legalism

💡 C) Pragmatism

Q73: The Experts Committee’s strategy ensured Congress's dominance in the Assembly by initially securing how many seats?

A) 296 B) 208 out of 296 C) 150 D) 389

💡 B) 208 out of 296

Q74: The committee’s emphasis on sovereign authority of the Constituent Assembly meant:

A) Reliance on British Parliament B) No external constraints in Constitution-making C) Mandatory approval from the League D) Princely states drafting their own Constitutions

💡 B) No external constraints in Constitution-making

Q75: The Experts Committee’s vision positioned India as:

A) A neutral non-aligned state B) A monarchy C) A democratic leader among post-colonial nations D) A socialist republic

💡 C) A democratic leader among post-colonial nations