Alphabet Position Test

 Alphabet Position Test

10 example problems for the Alphabet Position Test, which involves identifying the position of letters in the English alphabet (A=1, B=2, ..., Z=26) or using positions for reasoning-based questions.

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🔹 Problem 1

Question: What is the position of the letter K in the English alphabet?
Solution: K is the 11th letter.
✅ Answer: 11

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🔹 Problem 2

Question: Which letter is at the 20th position of the alphabet?
Solution: 20th letter = T
✅ Answer: T

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🔹 Problem 3

Question: What is the 13th letter from the left and 14th from the right in the alphabet?
Solution: There are 26 letters. 14th from the right = 26 - 13 + 1 = 14th from left
So both are the same.
13th letter = M
✅ Answer: M

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🔹 Problem 4

Question: What is the position of the letter opposite to D in the alphabet?
Solution: D = 4; opposite = 27 - 4 = 23rd letter = W
✅ Answer: W

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🔹 Problem 5

Question: What is the sum of the positions of the letters in the word DOG?
Solution:
D = 4, O = 15, G = 7
4 + 15 + 7 = 26
✅ Answer: 26

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🔹 Problem 6

Question: If A = 1, Z = 26, what is the position difference between M and T?
Solution: M = 13, T = 20
|20 - 13| = 7
✅ Answer: 7

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🔹 Problem 7

Question: Which letter is 5th to the left of R in the alphabet?
Solution: R = 18, 18 - 5 = 13 = M
✅ Answer: M

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🔹 Problem 8

Question: What letter lies midway between D and J?
Solution: D = 4, J = 10 → Midpoint = (4+10)/2 = 7 → G
✅ Answer: G

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🔹 Problem 9

Question: What is the reverse position of the letter C?
Solution: C = 3, reverse = 27 - 3 = 24 → Letter = X
✅ Answer: X

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🔹 Problem 10

Question: What is the product of the positions of the first and last letters of the word CAT?
Solution:
C = 3, T = 20
3 × 20 = 60
✅ Answer: 60

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Alphabetical Series questions

 

1.  Alphabetical Series test questions

Here are 10 example problems and solutions for the Alphabet Series Test, which is a common type in reasoning and aptitude tests. These involve recognizing patterns in sequences of letters.

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🔹 Problem 1

Series: A, C, E, G, ?

Solution:
Pattern: +2 letters
A → C → E → G → I

✅ Answer: I

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🔹 Problem 2

Series: Z, X, V, T, ?

Solution:
Pattern: -2 letters
Z → X → V → T → R

✅ Answer: R

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🔹 Problem 3

Series: B, D, G, K, ?

Solution:
Pattern: +2, +3, +4...
B(+2)=D, D(+3)=G, G(+4)=K, K(+5)=P

✅ Answer: P

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🔹 Problem 4

Series: M, N, P, S, ?

Solution:
Pattern: +1, +2, +3
M(+1)=N, N(+2)=P, P(+3)=S, S(+4)=W

✅ Answer: W

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🔹 Problem 5

Series: A, Z, C, X, E, ?

Solution:
Pattern 1 (1st, 3rd, 5th...): A, C, E → +2
Pattern 2 (2nd, 4th, 6th...): Z, X → -2
Next: E(+2)=G, X(-2)=V

✅ Answer: G, V
(If single letter expected, it's G)

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🔹 Problem 6

Series: D, H, L, P, ?

Solution:
Pattern: +4 letters
D(+4)=H, H(+4)=L, L(+4)=P, P(+4)=T

✅ Answer: T

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🔹 Problem 7

Series: A, C, F, J, ?

Solution:
Pattern: +2, +3, +4
A(+2)=C, C(+3)=F, F(+4)=J, J(+5)=O

✅ Answer: O

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🔹 Problem 8

Series: Z, V, R, N, ?

Solution:
Pattern: -4 letters
Z → V → R → N → J

✅ Answer: J

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🔹 Problem 9

Series: A, E, I, M, ?

Solution:
Pattern: +4 letters
A(+4)=E, E(+4)=I, I(+4)=M, M(+4)=Q

✅ Answer: Q

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🔹 Problem 10

Series: B, E, H, K, ?

Solution:
Pattern: +3
B(+3)=E, E(+3)=H, H(+3)=K, K(+3)=N

✅ Answer: N

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Indian History Bit Bank - Jainism 1

Indian History Bit Bank - Jainism 1 

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Jainism and Mahavira Bit Bank (Questions 1-50)

Q1: What was Mahavira’s name before he became known as Mahavira?

A) Siddhartha B) Vardhamana C) Gautama D) Rishabhadeva

💡 B) Vardhamana

Q2: In which year was Mahavira born?

A) 599 BC B) 540 BC C) 563 BC D) 483 BC

💡 B) 540 BC

Q3: Mahavira’s father, Siddhartha, was the head of which Kshatriya clan?

A) Sakyas B) Jantrikas C) Lichchhavis D) Mauryas

💡 B) Jantrikas

Q4: Who was Mahavira’s mother?

A) Yasoda B) Trisala C) Maya D) Anojja

💡 B) Trisala

Q5: To whom was Mahavira married?

A) Trisala B) Yasoda C) Anogna D) Gopa

💡 B) Yasoda

Q6: What was the name of Mahavira’s daughter?

A) Sanghamitra B) Anojja C) Sundari D) Maya

💡 B) Anojja

Q7: At what age did Mahavira become an ascetic?

A) 25 B) 30 C) 35 D) 40

💡 B) 30

Q8: How many years did Mahavira roam as an ascetic before attaining kaivalya?

A) 8 years B) 10 years C) 12 years D) 15 years

💡 B) 10 years

Q9: At what age did Mahavira attain kaivalya (Perfect Knowledge)?

A) 30 B) 42 C) 50 D) 60

💡 B) 42

Q10: Where did Mahavira attain kaivalya?

A) Pavapuri B) Jrimbhikagrama C) Vaisali D) Pataliputra

💡 B) Jrimbhikagrama

Q11: How long did Mahavira preach after attaining kaivalya?

A) 20 years B) 30 years C) 40 years D) 50 years

💡 B) 30 years

Q12: At what age did Mahavira pass away?

A) 60 B) 72 C) 80 D) 90

💡 B) 72

Q13: Where did Mahavira die?

A) Vaisali B) Pavapuri C) Sravana Belgola D) Ujjain

💡 B) Pavapuri

Q14: What was the name of the sect founded by Mahavira?

A) Digambaras B) Nirgranthas C) Svetambaras D) Ajivikas

💡 B) Nirgranthas

Q15: What title was given to Mahavira and his followers?

A) Buddhas B) Jinas C) Arhats D) Tirthankaras

💡 B) Jinas

Q16: What was the main teaching of Mahavira?

A) Caste system B) Non-violence (Ahimsa) C) Devotion D) Sacrifice

💡 B) Non-violence (Ahimsa)

Q17: Who was Mahavira’s contemporary and an important religious figure?

A) Chandragupta Maurya B) Gautama Buddha C) Ashoka D) Bhadrabahu

💡 B) Gautama Buddha

Q18: What term is used for the followers of Mahavira?

A) Buddhists B) Jains C) Sikhs D) Ajivikas

💡 B) Jains

Q19: Mahavira’s philosophy and teachings were compiled into which text?

A) Vedas B) Agamas C) Puranas D) Upanishads

💡 B) Agamas

Q20: How many Tirthankaras are there in Jainism?

A) 12 B) 24 C) 36 D) 48

💡 B) 24

Q21: What animal is associated with Mahavira as his symbol?

A) Elephant B) Lion C) Bull D) Snake

💡 B) Lion

Q22: Mahavira’s teachings primarily focused on liberating the soul from:

A) Wealth B) Rebirth C) Society D) Desire

💡 B) Rebirth

Q23: Which of the following was NOT a principle in Mahavira’s teachings?

A) Non-violence B) Truthfulness C) Caste system D) Non-possession

💡 C) Caste system

Q24: Where did Mahavira achieve spiritual knowledge under a tree?

A) Bodh Gaya B) Jrimbhikagrama C) Sarnath D) Kushinagar

💡 B) Jrimbhikagrama

Q25: In Jainism, what does the term "Kaivalya" refer to?

A) Liberation B) Perfect knowledge C) Asceticism D) Meditation

💡 B) Perfect knowledge

Q26: What significant event occurred at Pavapuri in Mahavira’s life?

A) His birth B) His enlightenment C) His death D) His marriage

💡 C) His death

Q27: Mahavira’s teachings were mainly centered around which concepts?

A) Vedic rituals B) Liberation and Non-violence C) Social hierarchy D) Devotion

💡 B) Liberation and Non-violence

Q28: Which animal is associated with the Tirthankara Ajita?

A) Lion B) Elephant C) Horse D) Bull

💡 B) Elephant

Q29: Mahavira emphasized self-discipline through which practice?

A) Charity B) Asceticism C) Pilgrimage D) Yoga

💡 B) Asceticism

Q30: In which region of ancient India was Mahavira born?

A) Magadha B) Kosala C) Vaisali D) Avanti

💡 C) Vaisali

Q31: Who was Mahavira’s first teacher after he left his family?

A) Bhadrabahu B) Gosala Maskariputra C) Sudharman D) Sthulabahu

💡 B) Gosala Maskariputra

Q32: Mahavira’s teachings had a strong influence on which aspect of life?

A) Political reform B) Social reform and ethics C) Economic systems D) Military strategies

💡 B) Social reform and ethics

Q33: Which principle did Mahavira add to the cardinal principles of Jainism?

A) Non-violence B) Truthfulness C) Observing continence (Brahmacharya) D) Non-stealing

💡 C) Observing continence (Brahmacharya)

Q34: What are the five cardinal principles of Jainism called when strictly observed by monks?

A) Anuvratas B) Mahavratas C) Ratnatraya D) Syadvada

💡 B) Mahavratas

Q35: What is the ultimate aim of life in Jainism according to Mahavira’s teachings?

A) Wealth accumulation B) Liberation (Moksha) C) Social status D) Knowledge acquisition

💡 B) Liberation (Moksha)

Q36: What is the ethical code for lay followers in Jainism called?

A) Mahavratas B) Anuvratas C) Ratnatraya D) Anekantavada

💡 B) Anuvratas

Q37: What are the three main teachings of Jainism referred to as the Ratnatraya?

A) Faith, Devotion, Charity B) Knowledge, Action, Liberation C) Truth, Non-violence, Asceticism D) Meditation, Prayer, Fasting

💡 B) Knowledge, Action, Liberation

Q38: According to Mahavira, what are the two primary substances that exist in the world?

A) Fire and Water B) Matter and Soul C) Earth and Air D) Body and Mind

💡 B) Matter and Soul

Q39: What did Mahavira believe causes the soul to be in bondage?

A) Wealth B) Ignorance and Karma C) Society D) Desire

💡 B) Ignorance and Karma

Q40: What is the final liberation of the soul called in Jainism?

A) Nirvana B) Moksha C) Kaivalya D) Samsara

💡 B) Moksha

Q41: What did Mahavira reject and object to in his teachings?

A) Asceticism B) Vedic rituals and Brahmin supremacy C) Non-violence D) Meditation

💡 B) Vedic rituals and Brahmin supremacy

Q42: Where did Jaina monks migrate after the famine in the Ganges valley?

A) North India B) The Deccan and South India C) Central Asia D) Western India

💡 B) The Deccan and South India

Q43: Who led the Jaina monks’ migration to South India after the famine?

A) Sudharman B) Bhadrabahu C) Sthulabahu D) Hemachandra

💡 B) Bhadrabahu

Q44: What caused the division of Jainism into two main sects?

A) Language differences B) Changes in the code of conduct after the famine C) Royal patronage disputes D) Scriptural disagreements

💡 B) Changes in the code of conduct after the famine

Q45: What are the two main sects of Jainism that emerged after the famine?

A) Nirgranthas and Ajivikas B) Digambaras and Svetambaras C) Samaiyas and Terapantis D) Mahayana and Theravada

💡 B) Digambaras and Svetambaras

Q46: What characterizes the Digambara sect of Jainism?

A) They wear white clothing B) They believe in complete renunciation, including clothing C) They reject asceticism D) They follow Vedic rituals

💡 B) They believe in complete renunciation, including clothing

Q47: How does the Svetambara sect differ from the Digambara sect?

A) They reject non-violence B) They wear white clothing C) They do not believe in Tirthankaras D) They emphasize caste hierarchy

💡 B) They wear white clothing

Q48: Where was the first Jaina Council held?

A) Vallabhi B) Pataliputra C) Sravana Belgola D) Mathura

💡 B) Pataliputra

Q49: Who chaired the first Jaina Council held at Pataliputra?

A) Bhadrabahu B) Sthulabahu C) Devardhi D) Sudharman

💡 B) Sthulabahu

Q50: What was the outcome of the first Jaina Council held at Pataliputra?

A) Division into sects B) Compilation of 12 Angas by the Svetambaras C) Migration to South India D) Establishment of new temples

💡 B) Compilation of 12 Angas by the Svetambaras

10 Criticism of the Constituent Assembly - bit bank MCQs

10 Criticism of the Constituent Assembly - bit bank MCQs

Home Page of Political Science Bit Bank

Constituent Assembly of India Bit Bank (Questions 1-71)

Q1: Under which plan was the Constituent Assembly of India established?

A) Mountbatten Plan B) Cripps Mission C) Cabinet Mission Plan D) August Offer

💡 C) Cabinet Mission Plan

Q2: How many members were there in the Constituent Assembly before partition?

A) 299 B) 389 C) 296 D) 395

💡 B) 389

Q3: Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?

A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) K.M. Munshi C) B.R. Ambedkar D) Rajendra Prasad

💡 C) B.R. Ambedkar

Q4: What was the primary criticism regarding the election of the Constituent Assembly?

A) No elections were held B) Indirect elections with a limited franchise C) Nominated by the British Crown D) Elected only by princely states

💡 B) Indirect elections with a limited franchise

Q5: What percentage of adults could vote in the 1946 elections for the provincial assemblies?

A) 100% B) Around 50% C) About 28% D) Less than 10%

💡 C) About 28%

Q6: Who among the following was a vocal critic of the Constituent Assembly’s elitism?

A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Jayaprakash Narayan C) Sardar Patel D) Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar

💡 B) Jayaprakash Narayan

Q7: Which political party dominated the Constituent Assembly?

A) Hindu Mahasabha B) Indian National Congress C) Muslim League D) Communist Party of India

💡 B) Indian National Congress

Q8: How many sessions did the Constituent Assembly hold during its functioning?

A) 15 B) 11 C) 8 D) 22

💡 B) 11

Q9: Who among the following was a prominent member of the Constituent Assembly representing Scheduled Tribes?

A) Jaipal Singh B) Hansa Mehta C) K.M. Munshi D) Shyama Prasad Mookerjee

💡 A) Jaipal Singh

Q10: Which article in the Indian Constitution provides for universal adult franchise?

A) Article 14 B) Article 326 C) Article 21 D) Article 370

💡 B) Article 326

Q11: Which group’s boycott led to a reduction in Muslim representation in the Assembly?

A) Hindu Mahasabha B) Muslim League C) Communist Party D) Scheduled Castes Federation

💡 B) Muslim League

Q12: Which provision was criticized for favoring strong centralization, aligning with Congress ideology?

A) Article 370 B) Articles 352–360 C) Article 32 D) Article 21

💡 B) Articles 352–360

Q13: Who among the following was a woman member of the Constituent Assembly?

A) Begum Rokeya B) Hansa Mehta C) Sarojini Naidu D) Sucheta Kripalani

💡 B) Hansa Mehta

Q14: Which part of the Constitution addresses minority rights like cultural and educational rights?

A) Part II B) Part III C) Part IV D) Part I

💡 B) Part III

Q15: Which provision in the draft Constitution provided protection to minority educational institutions?

A) Article 29 B) Article 370 C) Article 21 D) Article 50

💡 A) Article 29

Q16: The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in which part of the Constitution?

A) Part III B) Part IV C) Part V D) Part II

💡 B) Part IV

Q17: Which leader from the Scheduled Castes Federation played a significant role in the Constituent Assembly?

A) Jaipal Singh B) B.R. Ambedkar C) Shyama Prasad Mookerjee D) Rajendra Prasad

💡 B) B.R. Ambedkar

Q18: Which article initially protected property rights before being repealed?

A) Article 14 B) Article 31 C) Article 21 D) Article 370

💡 B) Article 31

Q19: Who among the following continued to represent Muslim interests in the Assembly despite the Muslim League’s boycott?

A) Begum Aizaz Rasul B) Muhammad Ali Jinnah C) Liaquat Ali Khan D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

💡 A) Begum Aizaz Rasul

Q20: The final Constitution adopted in 1949 contained how many articles and schedules?

A) 395 articles and 8 schedules B) 299 articles and 12 schedules C) 448 articles and 12 schedules D) 395 articles and 12 schedules

💡 A) 395 articles and 8 schedules

Q21: Who among the following women leaders was part of the Constituent Assembly and advocated for gender-neutral language in the Constitution?

A) Sarojini Naidu B) Hansa Mehta C) Annie Besant D) Aruna Asaf Ali

💡 B) Hansa Mehta

Q22: Which Article of the Indian Constitution ensures maternity relief for women?

A) Article 15 B) Article 39 C) Article 42 D) Article 21

💡 C) Article 42

Q23: What was a major criticism regarding the representation of princely states in the Constituent Assembly?

A) Representatives were appointed by the British Crown B) Representatives were nominated by rulers instead of being elected C) There was no representation of princely states D) Princely states refused to participate

💡 B) Representatives were nominated by rulers instead of being elected

Q24: Who played a crucial role in integrating over 560 princely states into the Indian Union by 1949?

A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel D) Mahatma Gandhi

💡 C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Q25: What was one of the consequences of time constraints faced by the Constituent Assembly?

A) The Constitution was never circulated for public feedback B) Limited grassroots public engagement C) No discussions on fundamental rights D) Delay in the framing of Directive Principles

💡 B) Limited grassroots public engagement

Q26: Approximately how many plenary sessions did the Constituent Assembly hold during the framing of the Constitution?

A) 100 B) 120 C) 165 D) 200

💡 C) 165

Q27: Which provision in the Constitution reflects an effort to incorporate indigenous governance systems?

A) Article 40 (Village Panchayats) B) Article 368 (Amendment Procedure) C) Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability) D) Article 14 (Equality Before Law)

💡 A) Article 40 (Village Panchayats)

Q28: Which of the following foreign constitutions influenced the Directive Principles of State Policy in India?

A) U.S. Constitution B) British Constitution C) Irish Constitution D) French Constitution

💡 C) Irish Constitution

Q29: Critics from which group claimed the Indian Constitution lacked a true “Bharatiya” ethos?

A) Indian National Congress B) Hindu Mahasabha C) Communist Party of India D) Muslim League

💡 B) Hindu Mahasabha

Q30: Despite foreign influences, which element of the Constitution emphasizes India's unique diversity and culture?

A) Article 370 B) The Preamble C) Article 352 D) Ninth Schedule

💡 B) The Preamble

Q31: What was a major criticism of the centralized federal structure of the Indian Constitution?

A) It gave too much power to states B) It undermined provincial autonomy C) It allowed direct rule by the judiciary D) It restricted the role of the President

💡 B) It undermined provincial autonomy

Q32: Which Article allows for President's Rule in states, a point of criticism regarding central overreach?

A) Article 352 B) Article 356 C) Article 360 D) Article 370

💡 B) Article 356

Q33: The linguistic reorganization of states in 1956 demonstrated:

A) Weakness of the federal system B) Flexibility of the federal framework C) Failure of the Constitution D) End of federalism

💡 B) Flexibility of the federal framework

Q34: What did socialist and communist critics argue about the socio-economic aspects of the Constitution?

A) It focused only on foreign policies B) It was too radical C) It prioritized political democracy over socio-economic transformation D) It ignored political democracy

💡 C) It prioritized political democracy over socio-economic transformation

Q35: Article 31, before its amendment, was criticized for:

A) Promoting communalism B) Protecting landlord interests C) Weakening judiciary powers D) Ignoring property rights

💡 B) Protecting landlord interests

Q36: Which part of the Constitution sets ambitious socio-economic goals?

A) Preamble B) Part III C) Part IV (Directive Principles) D) Part V

💡 C) Part IV (Directive Principles)

Q37: The Assembly balanced ideologies of leaders like:

A) Nehru’s socialism, Ambedkar’s social justice, Patel’s pragmatism B) Gandhi’s communism, Patel’s socialism, Nehru’s liberalism C) Ambedkar’s monarchy, Nehru’s communism, Patel’s democracy D) None of the above

💡 A) Nehru’s socialism, Ambedkar’s social justice, Patel’s pragmatism

Q38: How was the democratic mandate of the Constituent Assembly justified?

A) Members were nominated by British rulers B) Members were chosen by provincial legislatures based on 1946 elections C) Members were directly elected by the public D) Members were selected by political parties

💡 B) Members were chosen by provincial legislatures based on 1946 elections

Q39: Which article provides for universal adult franchise?

A) Article 14 B) Article 19 C) Article 326 D) Article 370

💡 C) Article 326

Q40: How did non-Congress members influence the Assembly?

A) They were excluded from major discussions B) They held influential roles and contributed diverse perspectives C) They boycotted the Assembly entirely D) They only focused on foreign policy

💡 B) They held influential roles and contributed diverse perspectives

Q41: What provisions addressed minority concerns in the Constitution?

A) Articles 370–371 B) Articles 29–30 and secularism in the Preamble C) Articles 15–16 only D) None of the above

💡 B) Articles 29–30 and secularism in the Preamble

Q42: How did the Assembly address elite bias?

A) By excluding marginalized groups B) By including representatives from Scheduled Castes, Tribes, and women C) By focusing only on urban elites D) By ignoring social justice

💡 B) By including representatives from Scheduled Castes, Tribes, and women

Q43: Which article provides for reservations in public employment?

A) Article 21 B) Article 335 C) Article 370 D) Article 280

💡 B) Article 335

Q44: How did women members influence the Constitution?

A) They were passive participants B) They shaped key provisions like gender equality and social justice C) They focused only on economic matters D) They had no influence

💡 B) They shaped key provisions like gender equality and social justice

Q45: Integration of princely states was led by:

A) B.R. Ambedkar B) Sardar Patel C) Jawaharlal Nehru D) Maulana Azad

💡 B) Sardar Patel

Q46: What demonstrated public consultation in the Constitution-making process?

A) No circulation of draft B) Thousands of public suggestions and 165 days of debate C) Quick passing without discussion D) Ignoring amendments

💡 B) Thousands of public suggestions and 165 days of debate

Q47: How did the Constitution balance foreign influences?

A) By copying foreign models without changes B) By rejecting all foreign influences C) By adapting foreign elements to Indian needs D) By ignoring Indian traditions

💡 C) By adapting foreign elements to Indian needs

Q48: Article 40 promotes:

A) Presidential governance B) Secularism C) Village panchayats D) Emergency provisions

💡 C) Village panchayats

Q49: The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution concerns:

A) Fundamental Duties B) Union, State, and Concurrent Lists C) Directive Principles D) Emergency Provisions

💡 B) Union, State, and Concurrent Lists

Q50: The Finance Commission is provided under:

A) Article 280 B) Article 356 C) Article 368 D) Article 370

💡 A) Article 280

Q51: Which article provides for amending the Constitution?

A) Article 280 B) Article 368 C) Article 352 D) Article 14

💡 B) Article 368

Q52: The concept of "quasi-federalism" in the Indian Constitution primarily means:

A) Equal power between Centre and States B) Strong Centre with State autonomy C) Complete State autonomy D) Power only to Union Territories

💡 B) Strong Centre with State autonomy

Q53: The criticism regarding protection of landlord interests was mainly directed at which Article?

A) Article 14 B) Article 31 C) Article 44 D) Article 39

💡 B) Article 31

Q54: The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution deals with:

A) Fundamental Duties B) Distribution of powers between Centre and States C) Emergency Provisions D) Directive Principles

💡 B) Distribution of powers between Centre and States

Q55: The linguistic reorganization of states in 1956 is an example of:

A) Centralization of power B) Assertion of state autonomy within federal flexibility C) Limiting federal rights D) Undemocratic practices

💡 B) Assertion of state autonomy within federal flexibility

Q56: Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in:

A) Part II B) Part III C) Part IV D) Part V

💡 C) Part IV

Q57: The Assembly’s public consultation process involved how many amendments?

A) 165 B) 2,473 C) 1,500 D) 3,000

💡 B) 2,473

Q58: Which leader played a pivotal role in the integration of princely states?

A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) B.R. Ambedkar C) Sardar Patel D) Rajendra Prasad

💡 C) Sardar Patel

Q59: The Constitution was adopted on:

A) August 15, 1947 B) January 26, 1950 C) November 26, 1949 D) January 30, 1948

💡 C) November 26, 1949

Q60: Universal adult franchise is provided under which Article?

A) Article 324 B) Article 326 C) Article 368 D) Article 280

💡 B) Article 326

Q61: Article 29 and 30 of the Constitution focus on:

A) Economic rights B) Cultural and educational rights of minorities C) Directive Principles D) Emergency Provisions

💡 B) Cultural and educational rights of minorities

Q62: Which part of the Constitution reflects socialist ideals like equitable wealth distribution?

A) Preamble B) Part IV (Directive Principles) C) Part III (Fundamental Rights) D) Part IX (Panchayati Raj)

💡 B) Part IV (Directive Principles)

Q63: Hansa Mehta is known for her contribution to:

A) Land reforms B) Gender equality provisions C) Integration of states D) Secularism

💡 B) Gender equality provisions

Q64: Which Article emphasizes non-discrimination on grounds of sex, race, religion, etc.?

A) Article 14 B) Article 15 C) Article 19 D) Article 21

💡 B) Article 15

Q65: The abolition of property rights as a fundamental right was achieved through an amendment in:

A) 1956 B) 1962 C) 1978 D) 1985

💡 C) 1978

Q66: Article 280 relates to:

A) Election Commission B) Union Public Service Commission C) Finance Commission D) Comptroller and Auditor General

💡 C) Finance Commission

Q67: The phrase “unity in diversity” in the context of the Constitution mainly reflects:

A) Directive Principles B) Preamble C) Federal structure D) All of the above

💡 D) All of the above

Q68: What was one of the reasons for adopting a strong Centre, as per the Assembly debates?

A) Promote international trade B) Counter post-partition fragmentation C) Abolish caste system D) Promote foreign relations

💡 B) Counter post-partition fragmentation

Q69: Which Article promotes the establishment of village panchayats?

A) Article 40 B) Article 32 C) Article 50 D) Article 48

💡 A) Article 40

Q70: The draft Constitution was circulated for public feedback in:

A) 1946 B) 1947 C) 1948 D) 1950

💡 C) 1948

Q71: Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for President's Rule, criticized for enabling Central overreach?

A) Article 352 B) Article 356 C) Article 360 D) Article 368

💡 B) Article 356